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NCLEX National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN) Sample Questions (Q847-Q852):

NEW QUESTION # 847
A 19-year-old primigravida is admitted to the labor and delivery suite of the hospital. Her husband is accompanying her. The couple tells the nurse that this is the first hospital admission for her. The client's vaginal exam indicates she is 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and at _0 station. Based on the vaginal exam, she is in:

A. Stage 1, active phase
B. Stage 1, latent phase
C. Stage 2, latent phase
D. Stage 3, transition phase

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The second stage of labor is from full cervical dilation through birth of the baby. The three phases of this stage include latency or resting, descent, and final transition. The client is less than fully dilated so she is not in stage 2. (B) The first stage of labor begins with regular uterine contractions and continues until the woman is 10 cm dilated. The three phases of this stage include the early or latent phase (0-3 cm), the active phase (4-7 cm), and the transitional phase (7-10 cm). The client is <4 cm dilated so she is in the latent phase of the first stage of labor. (C) The third stage of labor is from the birth of the baby until the delivery of the placenta.
The client is less than fully dilated. (D) The first stage of labor begins with regular uterine contractions and continues until the woman is 10 cm dilated. The three phases of this stage include the early orlatent phase (0-3 cm), the active phase (4-7 cm), and the transitional phase (7-10 cm). The client is <4 cm dilated so she is in the latent phase of the first stage of labor.

NEW QUESTION # 848
A client suspected of having anorexia nervosa is placed on bed rest with an IV infusion and a high- carbohydrate liquid diet. Within 72 hours, the results of her lab work show a return to normal limits. She is transferred to the psychiatric service for further treatment. A behavior modification plan is initiated. Three days after her transfer, the client tells the nurse, "I haven't exercised in 6 days. I won't be eating lunch today." This statement by her most likely reflects:

A. Increased knowledge about personal exercise plans
B. A manipulative technique to trick the nurse into allowing her to miss a meal
C. Her lack of internal awareness about the outcome of the behavior
D. A true desire to stay fit while in the hospital

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Indirect self-destructive behavior such as that seen in anorexia nervosa is characterized by the client's lack of insight and the awareness that the outcome of the dieting, exercising, and weight loss will ultimately result in death if uninterrupted. (B) Although the client is knowledgeable about exercise, knowledge about the balance between nutrition, exercise, and rest is absent. (C) The client's level of denial and lack of awareness disallow this behavior as a manipulative trick. (D) The client's illness-maintaining behaviors are inconsistent with fitness.

NEW QUESTION # 849
A 14-year-old teenager is hospitalized for anorexia nervosa. She is admitted to the adolescent mental health unit and placed on a behavior modification program. Nursing interventions for the teenager will most likely include:

A. Checking the client's room frequently
B. Establishing routine tasks and activities around mealtimes
C. Administering medications such as lithium
D. Requiring the client to eat more during meals

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation:
(A) Providing a more structured, supportive environment addresses safety and comfort needs, thereby helping the anorexic client develop more internal control. (B) Medications (commonly antidepressants) are frequently ordered for the anorexic client. However, lithium (used primarily with bipolar disorder) is not commonly used to treat the anorexic client. (C) Requiring and/or demanding that the anorexic client "eat more" at mealtimes increases the client's feelings of powerlessness. (D) Like the previous strategy, checking the client's room frequently contributes to the client's feelings of powerlessness.

NEW QUESTION # 850
The nurse assesses a client on the second postpartum day and finds a dark red discharge on the peripad. The stain appears to be about 5 inches long. Which of the following correctly describes the character and amount of lochia?

A. Lochia alba, light
B. Lochia rubra, moderate
C. Lochia granulosa, heavy
D. Lochia serosa, heavy

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Lochia alba occurs approximately 10 days after birth and is yellow to white. A discharge is classified as light when less than a 4-inch stain exists. (B) Lochia serosa is pink to brown and occurs 3-4 days after delivery. A stain is classified as heavy when a peripad is saturated in 1 hour. (C) Lochia granulosa is not a proper classification. (D) Lochia rubra is red, consisting mainly of blood, debris, and bacteria, and lasts from the time of delivery to 3-4 days afterward. A stain is classified as moderate when less than a 6-inch stain exists.

NEW QUESTION # 851
The physician prescribes amitriptyline (Elavil) for a client. What does the patient need to know about this medication?

A. The medication should relieve his symptoms of depression.
B. Blood must be drawn weekly to test for toxicity.
C. When the medication is effective, he will experience no anxiety.
D. Prolonged use of this medication will result in extrapyramidal side effects.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Phenothiazines cause extrapyramidal symptoms. (B) No amount of medication can relieve all anxiety in all cases. (C) The purpose of amitriptyline is to relieve the symptoms of depression because it is an antidepressant. It increases the action of norepinephrine and serotonin on nerve cells. (D) Periodic blood tests are done when lithium is prescribed.

NEW QUESTION # 852
......

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