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2025 Professional AAPC-CPC: Valid American Academy of Professional Coders: Certified Professional Coder Mock Exam

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Medical Tests American Academy of Professional Coders: Certified Professional Coder Sample Questions (Q88-Q93):

NEW QUESTION # 88
It is appropriate to use a HCPCS Level II G code, as opposed to a CPT code, to report a screening service performed on an asymptomatic patient.

A. False
B. True

Answer: B

Explanation:
The statement is true. G codes apply to various healthcare screenings. If a patient is experiencing any symptoms that initiate the encounter, it then becomes diagnostic, and an appropriate CPT code would be selected instead.

NEW QUESTION # 89
Code the excision of a large goiter extending into the chest cavity using a transthoracic approach.

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
A goiter is an abnormal enlargement of the thyroid gland. The removal of that gland is a thyroidectomy, represented by CPT codes 60240-60271. CPT 60270 is selected based on the approach used. CPT codes 21602 and 32900 are obtained by using the coding crosswalk for resection ofthe chest wall and describe the removal of a tumor and one or more ribs. CPT 32140 is a thoracotomy, which involves pulling apart the ribs to reach and remove a lung cyst.

NEW QUESTION # 90
Code the following surgical note:
Patient is seen for an epidural injection into the following three levels: L3-L4, L4-L5 and L5-S1.
A 22 -gauge spinal needle is inserted into the zygapophyseal joint using fluoroscopic guidance. After confirming the needles placement at L3-L4 on the left side, 0.5 cc of a local anesthetic is injected into the joint. The whole process is repeated on the left side at the other two levels. The procedure was completed without any complications.

A. 64493-LT, 64494-59-LT, 64495-59u
B. 0216T-LT, 0217T-LT, 0218T-LT
C. 0
D. 64493-LT, 64494-LT, 64495-LT

Answer: D

Explanation:
64493 is used for the initial injection of an anesthetic, followed by 64494 and 64495 as add-on codes for the other Two levels. Because there are two sides of a facet joint, modifier LT would be amended to show the carrier that the procedure occurred on the left side of the spine.
In answer B, CPT codes 0216T-0218T exclude fluoroscopic guidance and refer the biller to codes
64490-64495. In general, modifier 59 would not be used on add-on codes, so answer C can be eliminated. Answer D describes an injection in the interlaminar epidural or subarachnoid space and is not the correct procedure code for this circumstance.

NEW QUESTION # 91
A 79-year-old female patient is admitted to a skilled nursing facility for continued monitoring as she completes her course of antibiotics for bronchitis. Upon admission, a nurse practitioner spends 20 minutes with the patient, performing an evaluation of recovery and rebuilding of stamin a. On day 3, the patient's physician completes an initial comprehensive assessment and determines the patient is recovering well on her current dosage of antibiotics. What CPT code should be reported on day 3?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: C

Explanation:
CPT defines an initial nursing facility service (NFS) as "the first encounter with the patient by the admitting physician to nursing facilities." Although the patient can be evaluated and treated by other medical staff in the meantime, only the physician responsible for the admission may report the initial comprehensive visit (99304-99306). If other medical personnel do provide treatment, those visits would be reported using the subsequent nursing facility care encounter codes (99307-
99310). Nursing facility care services require a medically appropriate history and/or examination, and a review of medical decision making. In this scenario, the number and complexity of problems addressed at the encounter is low (one stable, acute illness), the amount and/or complexity of data reviewed or analyzed is straightforward (minimal or none), and the risk of complications and/or morbidity or mortality of patient management is moderate (prescription drug management). After considering that the patient is established, the level of complexity for the visit is considered low and the encounter should be reported with CPT code 99304.

NEW QUESTION # 92
A patient undergoes surgery with anesthesia and is arousable with painful stimulation. What is the level of sedation the patient MOST likely received?

A. Deep sedation
B. Moderate sedation
C. Minimal sedation
D. General anesthesia

Answer: A

Explanation:
Minimal, moderate, and deep sedation all allow the patient to undergo a procedure without pain and without being completely unconscious. If a patient receives minimal sedation, they are responsive after receiving verbal stimulation. Moderate sedation causes a patient to respond only after tactile stimulation. General anesthesia causes the patient to be completely unarousable, even with painful stimulation.

NEW QUESTION # 93
......

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